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1994-11-20
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4AA-1.1 What are the frequency privileges authorized to the
Advanced operator in the 75-meter wavelength band?
A. 3525 kHz to 3750 kHz and 3775 kHz to 4000 kHz
B. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz
C. 3500 kHz to 3525 kHz and 3800 kHz to 3890 kHz
D. 3525 kHz to 3775 kHz and 3800 kHz to 4000 kHz
4AA-1.2 What are the frequency privileges authorized to the
Advanced operator in the 40-meter wavelength band?
A. 7000 kHz to 7300 kHz
B. 7025 kHz to 7300 kHz
C. 7025 kHz to 7350 kHz
D. 7000 kHz to 7025 kHz
4AA-1.3 What are the frequency privileges authorized to the
Advanced operator in the 20-meter wavelength band?
A. 14000 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz
B. 14025 kHz to 14175 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz
C. 14000 kHz to 14025 kHz and 14200 kHz to 14350 kHz
D. 14025 kHz to 14150 kHz and 14175 kHz to 14350 kHz
4AA-1.4 What are the frequency privileges authorized to the
Advanced operator in the 15-meter wavelength band?
A. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21250 kHz to 21450 kHz
B. 21000 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21300 kHz to 21450 kHz
C. 21025 kHz to 21200 kHz and 21225 kHz to 21450 kHz
D. 21025 kHz to 21250 kHz and 21270 kHz to 21450 kHz
4AA-2.1 What is meant by automatic retransmission from a repeater
station?
A. The repeater is actuated by a received electrical signal
B. The repeater is actuated by a telephone control link
C. The repeater station is actuated by a control operator
D. The repeater station is actuated by a call sign sent in
Morse code
4AA-2.2 What is the term for the operation of a repeater whereby
the repeater station is actuated solely by the presence of a
received signal through electrical or electromechanical means,
without any direct, positive action by the control operator?
A. Simplex retransmission
B. Manual retransmission
C. Linear retransmission
D. Automatic retransmission
4AA-2.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
automatically retransmit programs or the radio signals of other
amateur stations?
A. Only when the station licensee is present
B. Only if the station is a repeater or space station
C. Only when the control operator is present
D. Only during portable operation
4AA-2.4 Which of the following stations may not be automatically
controlled?
A. A station transmitting control signals to a model craft
B. A station in beacon operation
C. A station in auxiliary operation
D. A station in repeater operation
4AA-3.1 What is meant by repeater operation?
A. An amateur radio station employing a phone patch to pass
third-party communications
B. An apparatus for effecting remote control between a control
point and a remotely controlled station
C. Manual or simplex operation
D. Radio communications in which amateur radio station signals
are automatically retransmitted
4AA-3.2 What is a closed repeater?
A. A repeater containing control circuitry that limits
repeater access to certain users
B. A repeater containing no special control circuitry to limit
access to any licensed amateur
C. A repeater containing a transmitter and receiver on the
same frequency, a closed pair
D. A repeater shut down by order of an FCC District Engineer-
in-Charge
4AA-3.3 What frequencies in the 10-meter wavelength band are
available for repeater operation?
A. 28.0-28.7 MHz
B. 29.0-29.7 MHz
C. 29.5-29.7 MHz
D. 28.5-29.7 MHz
4AA-3.4 Which of the following repeater operating and technical
parameters are ++++not++++ the responsibility of the area frequency
coordinator?
A. The repeater effective radiated power
B. The repeater transmit and receive frequencies
C. The repeater Height Above Average Terrain (HAAT)
D. The repeater call sign
4AA-3.5 What frequencies in the 23-cm wavelength band are
available for repeater operation?
A. 1270-1300 MHz
B. 1270-1295 MHz
C. 1240-1300 MHz
D. Repeater operation is not permitted in the 23-cm wavelength
band
4AA-3.6 What is an open repeater?
A. A repeater that does not contain control circuitry that
limits repeater access to certain users
B. A repeater available for use only by members of a club or
repeater group
C. A repeater that continuously transmits a signal to indicate
that it is available for use
D. A repeater whose frequency pair has been properly
coordinated
4AA-3.7 What frequencies in the 6-meter wavelength band are
available for repeater operation?
A. 51.00-52.00 MHz
B. 50.25-52.00 MHz
C. 52.00-53.00 MHz
D. 51.00-54.00 MHz
4AA-3.8 What frequencies in the 2-meter wavelength band are
available for repeater operation?
A. 144.50-145.50 and 146-148.00 MHz
B. 144.50-148.00 MHz
C. 144.75-146.00 and 146-148.00 MHz
D. 146.00-148.00 MHz
4AA-3.9 What frequencies in the 1.25-meter wavelength band are
available for repeater operation?
A. 220.25-225.00 MHz
B. 220.50-225.00 MHz
C. 221.00-225.00 MHz
D. 223.00-225.00 MHz
4AA-3.10 What frequencies in the 0.70-meter wavelength band are
available for repeater operation?
A. 420.0-431, 433-435 and 438-450 MHz
B. 420.5-440 and 445-450 MHz
C. 420.5-435 and 438-450 MHz
D. 420.5-433, 435-438 and 439-450 MHz
4AA-4.1 What is meant by auxiliary station operation?
A. Radio communication from a location more than 50 miles from
that indicated on the station license for a period of more than
three months
B. Remote control of model airplanes or boats using
frequencies above 50.1 MHz
C. Remote control of model airplanes or boats using
frequencies above 29.5 MHz
D. Transmission of communications point-to-point within a
system of cooperating amateur stations
4AA-4.2 What is one use for a station in auxiliary operation?
A. Point-to-point radio communications within a system of
cooperating amateur stations
B. Remote control of model craft
C. Passing of international third-party communications
D. The retransmission of NOAA weather broadcasts
4AA-4.3 A station in auxiliary operation may only communicate
with which stations?
A. Stations in the public safety service
B. Other amateur stations within a system of cooperating
amateur stations
C. Amateur radio stations in space satellite operation
D. Amateur radio stations other than those under manual
control
4AA-4.4 What frequencies are authorized for stations in auxiliary
operation?
A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433
MHz and 436-438 MHz
B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432
MHz and 435-437 MHz
C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433
MHz and 435-438 MHz
D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432
MHz and 434-437 MHz
4AA-5.1 What is meant by ++++remote control++++ of an amateur radio
station?
A. Amateur communications conducted from a specific
geographical location other than that shown on the station
license
B. Automatic operation of a station from a control point
located elsewhere than at the station transmitter
C. An amateur radio station operating under automatic control
D. A control operator indirectly manipulating the operating
adjustments in the station through a control link
4AA-5.2 What is one responsibility of a control operator of a
station under remote control?
A. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more
than 3 minutes if the control link malfunctions
B. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more
than 4 minutes if the control link malfunctions
C. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more
than 5 minutes if the control link malfunctions
D. Provisions must be made to limit transmissions to no more
than 10 minutes if the control link malfunctions
4AA-5.3 If the control link for a station under remote control
malfunctions, there must be a provision to limit transmission to
what time length?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 5 minutes
4AA-5.4 What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control
of an amateur radio station?
A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433
MHz and 436-438 MHz
B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432
MHz and 435-437 MHz
C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433
MHz and 435-438 MHz
D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432
MHz and 434-437 MHz
4AA-5.5 What frequencies are authorized for radio remote control
of a station in repeater operation?
A. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 432-433
MHz and 436-438 MHz
B. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-432
MHz and 435-437 MHz
C. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 430-432
MHz and 434-437 MHz
D. All amateur frequency bands above 220.5 MHz, except 431-433
MHz and 435-438 MHz
4AA-6.1 What is meant by ++++automatic control++++ of an amateur radio
station?
A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that a
control operator does not have to be present at a control point
B. Radio communication for remotely controlling another
amateur radio station
C. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator
does not have to be present at the control point at all times
D. The use of a control link between a control point and a
remotely controlled station
4AA-6.2 How do the responsibilities of the control operator of a
station under automatic control differ from one under local
control?
A. Under local control, there is no control operator
B. Under automatic control, a control operator is not required
to be present at a control point
C. Under automatic control, there is no control operator
D. Under local control, a control operator is not required to
be present at the control point at all times
4AA-6.3 Which of the following amateur stations may be operated
by automatic control?
A. Stations without a control operator
B. Stations in repeater operation
C. Stations under remote control
D. Stations controlling model craft
4AA-7.1 What is a control link?
A. The automatic-control devices at an unattended station
B. An automatically operated link
C. The remote control apparatus between a control point and a
remotely controlled station
D. A transmission-limiting timing device
4AA-7.2 What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control
between the control point and a remotely controlled station?
A. Tone link
B. Wire control
C. Remote control
D. Control link
4AA-8.1 What is meant by local control?
A. The use of a control operator who directly manipulates the
operating adjustments
B. The OSCAR satellite transponder
C. A carrier operated relay system
D. The use of a portable handheld to turn on or off the
repeater
4AA-8.2 Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station?
A. Any amateur operator
B. Any Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class
operator
C. Any General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator
D. Any Advanced or Amateur Extra class operator
4AA-9.1 How may a repeater station be identified?
A. By a burst of digitized information
B. Only voice may be used for identification
C. By CW or voice
D. Only CW may be used for identification
4AA-9.2 When a repeater station is identified in Morse code using
an automatic keying device, what is the maximum code speed
permitted?
A. 13 words per minute
B. 30 words per minute
C. 20 words per minute
D. There is no limitation
4AA-9.3 How often must a beacon station be identified?
A. Every eight minutes
B. Only at the end of the series of transmissions
C. At the beginning of a series of transmissions
D. At least once every ten minutes during and at the end of
activity
4AA-9.4 When may a repeater be identified using digital codes?
A. Any time that particular code is used for at least part of
the communication
B. Digital identification is not allowed
C. Only voice may be allowed
D. No identification is needed in digital transmissions
4AA-10.1 When is prior FCC approval required before constructing
or altering an amateur station antenna structure?
A. When the antenna structure violates local building codes
B. When the height above ground will exceed 200 feet
C. When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway
will be 150 feet high
D. When an antenna located 23000 feet from an airport runway
will be 100 feet high
4AA-10.2 What must an amateur radio operator obtain from the FCC
before constructing or altering an antenna structure more than
200 feet high?
A. An Environmental Impact Statement
B. A Special Temporary Authorization
C. Prior approval
D. An effective radiated power statement
4AA-11.1 Without special FCC approval, what maximum height above
ground level (excluding airport proximity effects) is permitted
for any amateur antenna support structure, including the
radiating elements, tower, supports, etc.?
A. 46 m (150 feet)
B. 61 m (200 feet)
C. 76 m (250 feet)
D. 91 m (300 feet)
4AA-11.2 From what government agencies must permission be
obtained if you wish to erect an amateur antenna structure that
exceeds 200 feet above ground level?
A. Federal Aviation Administration and Federal Communications
Commission
B. Environmental Protection Agency and Federal Communications
Commission
C. Federal Aviation Administration and Environmental
Protection Agency
D. Environmental Protection Agency and National Aeronautics
and Space Administration
4AA-12.1 Which of the following types of amateur communications
is ++++not++++ a "prohibited transmission" as defined in Part 97?
A. Transmission of messages into a disaster area for hire or
for material compensation
B. Transmissions ensuring safety on a highway, such as calling
a commercial tow truck service
C. Transmission of communications that facilitate the regular
business or commercial affairs of any party
D. Transmission of communications concerning moving, supplying
and quartering participants in a charity event as long as the
sponsoring charity is the principal beneficiary of such
communications, not the public
4AA-12.2 May an amateur operator inform other amateur operators
of the availability of apparatus for sale or trade over the
airwaves?
A. You are not allowed to sell or trade equipment on the air
B. You are allowed to derive a profit by buying or selling
equipment on the air on a regular basis
C. This is a permissible activity if the apparatus can
normally be used at an amateur station and is not done for profit
by the offering individual on a regular basis
D. This is allowed only if you also give the serial number of
the equipment
4AA-12.3 Under what conditions, if any, may communications be
transmitted to a commercial business by an amateur station?
A. When the total remuneration does not exceed 25
B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC
C. When transmitting international third-party communications
D. When the immediate safety of human life or immediate
protection of property is involved
4AA-13.1 What are the only types of messages that may be
transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign country?
A. Supplies needed, on a routine schedule
B. Emergency messages or business messages
C. Business messages or messages of a technical nature
D. Personal remarks, tests, or messages of a technical nature
4AA-13.2 What are the limitations on international amateur radio
communications regarding the types of messages transmitted?
A. Emergency communications only
B. Technical or personal messages only
C. Business communications only
D. Call sign and signal reports only
4AA-14.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may amateur operators
accept payment for using their own stations (other than a club
station) to send messages?
A. When employed by the FCC
B. When passing emergency traffic
C. Under no circumstances
D. When passing international third-party communications
4AA-14.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may the licensee of an
amateur station in repeater operation accept remuneration for
providing communication services to another party?
A. When the repeater is operating under portable power
B. When the repeater is under local control
C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills
D. Under no circumstances
4AA-15.1 Who is responsible for preparing an Element 1(A)
telegraphy examination?
A. The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier
B. The FCC
C. The VEC
D. Any Novice licensee
4AA-15.2 What must the Element 1(A) telegraphy examination prove?
A. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in
international Morse code at a rate of not less than 13 words per
minute
B. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in
international Morse code at a rate of not less than 5 words per
minute
C. The applicant's ability to send and receive text in
international Morse code at a rate of not less than 20 words per
minute
D. The applicant's ability to send text in international Morse
code at a rate of not less than 13 words per minute
4AA-15.3 Which telegraphy characters are used in an Element 1(A)
telegraphy examination?
A. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the
comma, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
B. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the
comma, the open and closed parenthesis, the question mark, AR,
SK, BT and DN
C. The letters A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the
comma, the dollar sign, the question mark, AR, SK, BT and DN
D. A through Z, 0/ through 9, the period, the comma, and the
question mark
4AA-16.1 Who is responsible for preparing an Element 2 written
examination?
A. The FCC
B. Any Novice licensee
C. The volunteer examiners or a qualified supplier
D. The VEC
4AA-16.2 Where do volunteer examiners obtain the questions for
preparing an Element 2 written examination?
A. They must prepare the examination from material contained
in the ++++ARRL Handbook++++ or obtain a question set from the FCC
B. They must prepare the examination from material contained
in a question pool maintained by the FCC in Washington
C. They must prepare the examination from material contained
in a question pool maintained by the local FCC field office
D. They must prepare the examination from a common question
pool maintained by the VECs or obtain a question set from a
supplier
4AA-17.1 Who is eligible for administering an examination for the
Novice operator license?
A. An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or
Extra class license and at least 18 years old
B. An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General,
Advanced or Extra class license and at least 18 years old
C. An amateur radio operator holding a General, Advanced or
Extra class license and at least 16 years old
D. An amateur radio operator holding a Technician, General,
Advanced or Extra class license and at least 16 years old
4AA-17.2 Within how many days after the administration of a
successful Novice examination must the examiners submit the
application to the FCC?
A. Within one week of the administration date
B. Within 10 days of the administration date
C. Within 5 days of the administration date
D. Within 30 days of the administration date
4AA-17.3 Where must the completed Form 610 be submitted after the
administration of a successful Novice examination?
A. To the nearest FCC Field Office
B. To the FCC in Washington, DC
C. To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA
D. To any VEC
4AA-18.1 What is the minimum passing score on a written
examination element for the Novice operator license?
A. A minimum of 19 correct answers
B. A minimum of 22 correct answers
C. A minimum of 21 correct answers
D. A minimum of 24 correct answers
4AA-18.2 How many questions must an Element 2 written examination
contain?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30
4AA-18.3 In a telegraphy examination, how many characters are
counted as one word?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 8
D. 10
4AA-19.1 What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner?
A. 16 years old
B. 21 years old
C. 18 years old
D. 13 years old
4AA-19.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may volunteer
examiners be compensated for their services?
A. Under no circumstances
B. When out-of-pocket expenses exceed 25
C. The volunteer examiner may be compensated when traveling
over 25 miles to the test site
D. Only when there are more than 20 applicants attending the
examination session
4AA-19.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may a person whose
amateur station license or amateur operator license has ever been
revoked or suspended be a volunteer examiner?
A. Under no circumstances
B. Only if five or more years have elapsed since the
revocation or suspension
C. Only if 3 or more years have elapsed since the revocation
or suspension
D. Only after review and subsequent approval by the VEC
4AA-19.4 Under what circumstances, if any, may an employee of a
company which is engaged in the distribution of equipment used in
connection with amateur radio transmissions be a volunteer
examiner?
A. If the employee is employed in the amateur radio sales part
of the company
B. If the employee does not normally communicate with the
manufacturing or distribution part of the company
C. If the employee serves as a volunteer examiner for his/her
customers
D. If the employee does not normally communicate with the
benefits and policies part of the company
4AA-20.1 What are the penalties for fraudulently administering
examinations?
A. The VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a
period not to exceed 3 months
B. The VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed 500 for
each day the offense was committed
C. The VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the
operator's license suspended
D. The VE may be restricted to administering only Novice class
license examinations
4AA-20.2 What are the penalties for administering examinations
for money or other considerations?
A. The VE's amateur station license may be suspended for a
period not to exceed 3 months
B. The VE is subject to a monetary fine not to exceed 500 for
each day the offense was committed
C. The VE will be restricted to administering only Novice
class license examinations
D. The VE's amateur station license may be revoked and the
operator's license suspended
4AB-1.1 What is ++++facsimile++++?
A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a
picture when printed
B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television
C. The transmission of video by amateur television
D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display
on paper
4AB-1.2 What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile
picture transmitted by an amateur station?
A. The modern standard is 240 lines per minute
B. The modern standard is 50 lines per minute
C. The modern standard is 150 lines per second
D. The modern standard is 60 lines per second
4AB-1.3 What is the approximate transmission time for a facsimile
picture transmitted by an amateur station?
A. Approximately 6 minutes per frame at 240 lpm
B. Approximately 3.3 minutes per frame at 240 lpm
C. Approximately 6 seconds per frame at 240 lpm
D. 1/60 second per frame at 240 lpm
4AB-1.4 What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures
by radio?
A. Television
B. Facsimile
C. Xerography
D. ACSSB
4AB-1.5 In facsimile, how are variations in picture brightness
and darkness converted into voltage variations?
A. With an LED
B. With a Hall-effect transistor
C. With a photodetector
D. With an optoisolator
4AB-2.1 What is ++++slow-scan++++ television?
A. The transmission of Baudot or ASCII signals by radio
B. The transmission of pictures for permanent display on paper
C. The transmission of moving pictures by radio
D. The transmission of still pictures by radio
4AB-2.2 What is the scan rate commonly used for amateur slow-scan
television?
A. 20 lines per minute
B. 15 lines per second
C. 4 lines per minute
D. 240 lines per minute
4AB-2.3 How many lines are there in each frame of an amateur
slow-scan television picture?
A. 30
B. 60
C. 120
D. 180
4AB-2.4 What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-
scan television picture?
A. 2300 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 120 Hz
4AB-2.5 What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-
scan television picture?
A. 120 Hz
B. 1500 Hz
C. 2000 Hz
D. 2300 Hz
4AC-1.1 What is a ++++sporadic-E++++ condition?
A. Variations in E-layer height caused by sunspot variations
B. A brief increase in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at
E-layer height
C. Patches of dense ionization at E-layer height
D. Partial tropospheric ducting at E-layer height
4AC-1.2 What is the propagation condition called where scattered
patches of relatively dense ionization develop seasonally at E
layer heights?
A. Auroral propagation
B. Ducting
C. Scatter
D. Sporadic-E
4AC-1.3 In what region of the world is ++++sporadic-E++++ most prevalent?
A. The equatorial regions
B. The arctic regions
C. The northern hemisphere
D. The polar regions
4AC-1.4 On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance
propagation effect of sporadic-E most often observed?
A. 2 meters
B. 6 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 160 meters
4AC-1.5 What appears to be the major cause of the ++++sporadic-E++++
condition?
A. Wind shear
B. Sunspots
C. Temperature inversions
D. Meteors
4AC-2.1 What is a ++++selective fading++++ effect?
A. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at
the receiving station
B. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio
wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the
receiving station
C. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of
the ionosphere, as experienced at the receiving station
D. A fading effect caused by time differences between the
receiving and transmitting stations
4AC-2.2 What is the propagation effect called when phase
differences between radio wave components of the same
transmission are experienced at the recovery station?
A. Faraday rotation
B. Diversity reception
C. Selective fading
D. Phase shift
4AC-2.3 What is the major cause of ++++selective fading++++?
A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station
B. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as
experienced at the receiving station
C. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting
stations
D. Phase differences between radio wave components of the same
transmission, as experienced at the receiving station
4AC-2.4 Which emission modes suffer the most from ++++selective
fading++++?
A. CW and SSB
B. FM and double sideband AM
C. SSB and AMTOR
D. SSTV and CW
4AC-2.5 How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect
++++selective fading++++?
A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
B. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
C. It is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths
D. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading
effect
4AC-3.1 What effect does ++++auroral activity++++ have upon radio
communications?
A. The readability of SSB signals increases
B. FM communications are clearer
C. CW signals have a clearer tone
D. CW signals have a fluttery tone
4AC-3.2 What is the cause of ++++auroral activity++++?
A. A high sunspot level
B. A low sunspot level
C. The emission of charged particles from the sun
D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes
4AC-3.3 In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a
directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of
auroral propagation?
A. South
B. North
C. East
D. West
4AC-3.4 Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?
A. At F-layer height
B. In the equatorial band
C. At D-layer height
D. At E-layer height
4AC-3.5 Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?
A. CW and SSB
B. SSB and FM
C. FM and CW
D. RTTY and AM
4AC-4.1 Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the
geometric horizon?
A. E-layer skip
B. D-layer skip
C. Auroral skip
D. Radio waves may be bent
4AC-4.2 How much farther does the radio-path horizon distance
exceed the geometric horizon?
A. By approximately 15% of the distance
B. By approximately twice the distance
C. By approximately one-half the distance
D. By approximately four times the distance
4AC-4.3 To what distance is VHF propagation ordinarily limited?
A. Approximately 1000 miles
B. Approximately 500 miles
C. Approximately 1500 miles
D. Approximately 2000 miles
4AC-4.4 What propagation condition is usually indicated when a
VHF signal is received from a station over 500 miles away?
A. D-layer absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce
4AC-4.5 What happens to a radio wave as it travels in space and
collides with other particles?
A. Kinetic energy is given up by the radio wave
B. Kinetic energy is gained by the radio wave
C. Aurora is created
D. Nothing happens since radio waves have no physical
substance
4AD-1.1 What is a ++++frequency standard++++?
A. A net frequency
B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference
frequency
C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz
D. A device used to generate wideband random frequencies
4AD-1.2 What is a ++++frequency-marker generator++++?
A. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference
frequency
B. A sweep generator
C. A broadband white noise generator
D. A device used to generate wideband random frequencies
4AD-1.3 How is a frequency-marker generator used?
A. In conjunction with a grid-dip meter
B. To provide reference points on a receiver dial
C. As the basic frequency element of a transmitter
D. To directly measure wavelength
4AD-1.4 What is a ++++frequency counter++++?
A. A frequency measuring device
B. A frequency marker generator
C. A device that determines whether or not a given frequency
is in use before automatic transmissions are made
D. A broadband white noise generator
4AD-1.5 How is a frequency counter used?
A. To provide reference points on an analog receiver dial
B. To generate a frequency standard
C. To measure the deviation in an FM transmitter
D. To measure frequency
4AD-1.6 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could
differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm?
A. 165.2 Hz
B. 14.652 kHz
C. 146.52 Hz
D. 1.4652 MHz
4AD-1.7 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could
differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm?
A. 14.652 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 1.4652 Hz
D. 1.4652 kHz
4AD-1.8 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could
differ from a reading of 146,520,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm?
A. 146.52 Hz
B. 10 Hz
C. 146.52 kHz
D. 1465.20 Hz
4AD-1.9 What is the most the actual transmitter frequency could
differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm?
A. 43.21 MHz
B. 10 Hz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 432.1 Hz
4AD-1.10 What is the most the actual transmit frequency could
differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm?
A. 43.21 Hz
B. 0.1 MHz
C. 432.1 Hz
D. 0.2 MHz
4AD-1.11 What is the most the actual transmit frequency could
differ from a reading of 432,100,000-Hertz on a frequency counter
with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm?
A. 10 MHz
B. 10 Hz
C. 4321 Hz
D. 432.1 Hz
4AD-2.1 What is a ++++dip-meter++++?
A. A field strength meter
B. An SWR meter
C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
D. A marker generator
4AD-2.2 Why is a dip-meter used by many amateur operators?
A. It can measure signal strength accurately
B. It can measure frequency accurately
C. It can measure transmitter output power accurately
D. It can give an indication of the resonant frequency of a
circuit
4AD-2.3 How does a dip-meter function?
A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize the
detector coil
B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in
metered current
C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current
D. Harmonics of the oscillator cause an increase in resonant
circuit Q
4AD-2.4 What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur
station?
A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to
measure percentage of modulation
B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of
modulation
C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna
impedance
D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to
measure a tuned circuit resonant frequency
4AD-2.5 What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a
tuned circuit being checked?
A. Resistive and inductive
B. Inductive and capacitive
C. Resistive and capacitive
D. Strong field
4AD-2.6 How tight should the dip-meter be coupled with the tuned
circuit being checked?
A. As loosely as possible, for best accuracy
B. As tightly as possible, for best accuracy
C. First loose, then tight, for best accuracy
D. With a soldered jumper wire between the meter and the
circuit to be checked, for best accuracy
4AD-2.7 What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly
coupled with the tuned circuit being checked?
A. Harmonics are generated
B. A less accurate reading results
C. Cross modulation occurs
D. Intermodulation distortion occurs
4AD-3.1 What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and
stability of an oscilloscope?
A. Sweep oscillator quality and deflection amplifier bandwidth
B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier
voltage
C. Sweep oscillator quality and tube face voltage increments
D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face
frequency increments
4AD-3.2 What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and
stability of a D'Arsonval movement type meter?
A. Calibration, coil impedance and meter size
B. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current
C. Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement mass
D. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance
4AD-3.3 What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response, and
stability of a frequency counter?
A. Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and
time base stability
B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base
stability
C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic
and time base stability
D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency
reference and temperature coefficient of the logic
4AD-3.4 How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be
improved?
A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the
time base
B. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and
increasing the vertical sweep rate
C. By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal
amplifier frequency response
D. By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical
amplifier frequency response
4AD-3.5 How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?
A. By using slower digital logic
B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response
C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base
D. By using faster digital logic
4AD-4.1 What is the condition called which occurs when the
signals of two transmitters in close proximity mix together in
one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at
the sum and difference frequencies of the original transmissions
are generated?
A. Amplifier desensitization
B. Neutralization
C. Adjacent channel interference
D. Intermodulation interference
4AD-4.2 How does ++++intermodulation interference++++ between two
transmitters usually occur?
A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of
phase from airplanes passing overhead
B. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one
or both of their final amplifiers
C. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause
feedback in one or both of their final amplifiers
D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in
phase from airplanes passing overhead
4AD-4.3 How can intermodulation interference between two
transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated?
A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power
B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator
in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer
C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed
line
4AD-4.4 What can occur when a non-linear amplifier is used with a
single-sideband phone transmitter?
A. Reduced amplifier efficiency
B. Increased intelligibility
C. Sideband inversion
D. Distortion
4AD-4.5 How can even-order harmonics be reduced or prevented in
transmitter amplifier design?
A. By using a push-push amplifier
B. By using a push-pull amplifier
C. By operating class C
D. By operating class AB
4AD-5.1 What is ++++receiver desensitizing++++?
A. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too low
B. A burst of noise when the squelch is set too high
C. A reduction in receiver sensitivity because of a strong
signal on a nearby frequency
D. A reduction in receiver sensitivity when the AF gain
control is turned down
4AD-5.2 What is the term used to refer to the reduction of
receiver gain caused by the signals of a nearby station
transmitting in the same frequency band?
A. Desensitizing
B. Quieting
C. Cross modulation interference
D. Squelch gain rollback
4AD-5.3 What is the term used to refer to a reduction in receiver
sensitivity caused by unwanted high-level adjacent channel
signals?
A. Intermodulation distortion
B. Quieting
C. Desensitizing
D. Overloading
4AD-5.4 What causes ++++receiver desensitizing++++?
A. Audio gain adjusted too low
B. Squelch gain adjusted too high
C. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low
4AD-5.5 How can ++++receiver desensitizing++++ be reduced?
A. Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and
receiver
B. Increase the transmitter audio gain
C. Decrease the receiver squelch gain
D. Increase the receiver bandwidth
4AD-6.1 What is ++++cross-modulation interference++++?
A. Interference between two transmitters of different
modulation type
B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver
preamp
C. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal
D. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to
the desired signal
4AD-6.2 What is the term used to refer to the condition where the
signals from a very strong station are superimposed on other
signals being received?
A. Intermodulation distortion
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect
4AD-6.3 How can ++++cross-modulation++++ in a receiver be reduced?
A. By installing a filter at the receiver
B. By using a better antenna
C. By increasing the receiver's RF gain while decreasing the
AF gain
D. By adjusting the pass-band tuning
4AD-6.4 What is the result of ++++cross-modulation++++?
A. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
B. Receiver quieting
C. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the
desired signal
D. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
4AD-7.1 What is the ++++capture effect++++?
A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM
receiver
B. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM
receiver
C. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal
4AD-7.2 What is the term used to refer to the reception blockage
of one FM-phone signal by another FM-phone signal?
A. Desensitization
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Capture effect
D. Frequency discrimination
4AD-7.3 With which emission type is the capture-effect most
pronounced?
A. FM
B. SSB
C. AM
D. CW
4AE-1.1 What is ++++reactive power++++?
A. Wattless, non-productive power
B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor
C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage
D. Power consumed in circuit Q
4AE-1.2 What is the term for an out-of-phase, non-productive
power associated with inductors and capacitors?
A. Effective power
B. True power
C. Peak envelope power
D. Reactive power
4AE-1.3 What is the term for energy that is stored in an
electromagnetic or electrostatic field?
A. Potential energy
B. Amperes-joules
C. Joules-coulombs
D. Kinetic energy
4AE-1.4 What is responsible for the phenomenon when voltages
across reactances in series can often be larger than the voltages
applied to them?
A. Capacitance
B. Resonance
C. Conductance
D. Resistance
4AE-2.1 What is ++++resonance++++ in an electrical circuit?
A. The highest frequency that will pass current
B. The lowest frequency that will pass current
C. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals
inductive reactance
D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum
4AE-2.2 Under what conditions does resonance occur in an
electrical circuit?
A. When the power factor is at a minimum
B. When inductive and capacitive reactances are equal
C. When the square root of the sum of the capacitive and
inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency
D. When the square root of the product of the capacitive and
inductive reactances is equal to the resonant frequency
4AE-2.3 What is the term for the phenomena which occurs in an
electrical circuit when the inductive reactance equals the
capacitive reactance?
A. Reactive quiescence
B. High Q
C. Reactive equilibrium
D. Resonance
4AE-2.4 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a
series R-L-C circuit at resonance?
A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
C. Approximately equal to XL
D. Approximately equal to XC
4AE-2.5 What is the approximate magnitude of the impedance of a
parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
A. Approximately equal to the circuit resistance
B. Approximately equal to XL
C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance
D. Approximately equal to XC
4AE-2.6 What is the characteristic of the current flow in a
series R-L-C circuit at resonance?
A. It is at a minimum
B. It is at a maximum
C. It is DC
D. It is zero
4AE-2.7 What is the characteristic of the current flow in a
parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance?
A. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a
minimum
B. The current circulating in the parallel elements is at a
maximum
C. The current circulating in the parallel elements is DC
D. The current circulating in the parallel elements is zero
4AE-3.1 What is the ++++skin effect++++?
A. The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of
the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency increases
B. The phenomenon where RF current flows in a thinner layer of
the conductor, close to the surface, as frequency decreases
C. The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the
conductor increase the impedance
D. The phenomenon where thermal effects on the surface of the
conductor decrease the impedance
4AE-3.2 What is the term for the phenomenon where most of an RF
current flows along the surface of the conductor?
A. Layer effect
B. Seeburg Effect
C. Skin effect
D. Resonance
4AE-3.3 Where does practically all of the RF current flow in a
conductor?
A. Along the surface
B. In the center of the conductor
C. In the magnetic field around the conductor
D. In the electromagnetic field in the conductor center
4AE-3.4 Why does practically all of an RF current flow within a
few thousandths-of-an-inch of the conductor's surface?
A. Because of skin effect
B. Because the RF resistance of the conductor is much less
than the DC resistance
C. Because of heating of the metal at the conductor's interior
D. Because of the AC-resistance of the conductor's self inductance
4AE-3.5 Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF
current than for DC?
A. Because the insulation conducts current at radio
frequencies
B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect
C. Because of skin effect
D. Because conductors are non-linear devices
4AE-4.1 What is a ++++magnetic field++++?
A. Current flow through space around a permanent magnet
B. A force set up when current flows through a conductor
C. The force between the plates of a charged capacitor
D. The force that drives current through a resistor
4AE-4.2 In what direction is the magnetic field about a conductor
when current is flowing?
A. In the same direction as the current
B. In a direction opposite to the current flow
C. In all directions; omnidirectional
D. In a direction determined by the left hand rule
4AE-4.3 What device is used to store electrical energy in an
electrostatic field?
A. A battery
B. A transformer
C. A capacitor
D. An inductor
4AE-4.4 What is the term used to express the amount of electrical
energy stored in an electrostatic field?
A. Coulombs
B. Joules
C. Watts
D. Volts
4AE-4.5 What factors determine the capacitance of a capacitor?
A. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and distance
between the plates
B. Area of the plates, distance between the plates and the
dielectric constant of the material between the plates
C. Area of the plates, voltage on the plates and the
dielectric constant of the material between the plates
D. Area of the plates, amount of charge on the plates and the
dielectric constant of the material between the plates
4AE-4.6 What is the dielectric constant for air?
A. Approximately 1
B. Approximately 2
C. Approximately 4
D. Approximately 0
4AE-4.7 What determines the strength of the magnetic field around
a conductor?
A. The resistance divided by the current
B. The ratio of the current to the resistance
C. The diameter of the conductor
D. The amount of current
4AE-5.1 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 79.6 MHz
B. 1.78 MHz
C. 3.56 MHz
D. 7.96 MHz
4AE-5.2 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 1.99 kHz
B. 1.78 MHz
C. 1.99 MHz
D. 1.78 kHz
4AE-5.3 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 3.18 MHz
B. 3.18 kHz
C. 7.12 MHz
D. 7.12 kHz
4AE-5.4 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 10.1 MHz
B. 63.7 MHz
C. 10.1 kHz
D. 63.7 kHz
4AE-5.5 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 13.1 MHz
B. 14.5 MHz
C. 14.5 kHz
D. 13.1 kHz
4AE-5.6 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 19.9 kHz
B. 17.8 kHz
C. 19.9 MHz
D. 17.8 MHz
4AE-5.7 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 2.84 MHz
B. 28.4 MHz
C. 21.3 MHz
D. 2.13 MHz
4AE-5.8 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 23.7 MHz
B. 23.7 kHz
C. 35.4 kHz
D. 35.4 MHz
4AE-5.9 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 28.1 kHz
B. 28.1 MHz
C. 49.7 MHz
D. 49.7 kHz
4AE-5.10 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-1 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 17.7 MHz
B. 17.7 kHz
C. 53.1 MHz
D. 53.1 kHz
4AE-5.11 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 50.3 MHz
B. 15.9 MHz
C. 15.9 kHz
D. 50.3 kHz
4AE-5.12 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 29.1 kHz
B. 29.1 MHz
C. 5.31 MHz
D. 5.31 kHz
4AE-5.13 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 23.7 kHz
B. 3.54 kHz
C. 23.7 MHz
D. 3.54 MHz
4AE-5.14 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 2.65 kHz
B. 20.5 kHz
C. 2.65 MHz
D. 20.5 MHz
4AE-5.15 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 18.4 MHz
B. 2.12 MHz
C. 18.4 kHz
D. 2.12 kHz
4AE-5.16 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 1.33 kHz
B. 14.5 MHz
C. 1.33 MHz
D. 14.5 kHz
4AE-5.17 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 6.63 MHz
B. 6.63 kHz
C. 10.3 MHz
D. 10.3 kHz
4AE-5.18 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 3.18 MHz
B. 3.18 kHz
C. 7.12 kHz
D. 7.12 MHz
4AE-5.19 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 3.56 MHz
B. 7.96 kHz
C. 3.56 kHz
D. 7.96 MHz
4AE-5.20 What is the resonant frequency of the circuit in Figure
4AE-5-2 when L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads
[see graphics addendum]?
A. 1.77 MHz
B. 1.68 MHz
C. 1.77 kHz
D. 1.68 kHz
4AE-5.21 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?
A. 18.9 kHz
B. 1.89 kHz
C. 189 Hz
D. 58.7 kHz
4AE-5.22 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218?
A. 58.7 kHz
B. 606 kHz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 16.5 kHz
4AE-5.23 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?
A. 211 kHz
B. 16.5 kHz
C. 47.3 kHz
D. 21.1 kHz
4AE-5.24 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of
218?
A. 21.1 kHz
B. 27.9 kHz
C. 17 kHz
D. 58.7 kHz
4AE-5.25 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of
150?
A. 95 kHz
B. 10.5 kHz
C. 10.5 MHz
D. 17 kHz
4AE-5.26 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of
95?
A. 4.49 kHz
B. 44.9 kHz
C. 22.3 kHz
D. 222.6 kHz
4AE-5.27 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of
225?
A. 4.49 kHz
B. 44.9 kHz
C. 22.3 kHz
D. 223 kHz
4AE-5.28 What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of
195?
A. 92.8 kHz
B. 10.8 kHz
C. 22.3 kHz
D. 44.9 kHz
See ADV-2.ASC for the continuation of this pool...